I dunno how this case started - did the man get arrested in the act, did someone file a complaint, did the boy contract HIV from this man?
Nevertheless, while he is the test case for the amended Infectious Diseases Act, why did he also get charged for "committing an act of gross indecency" aka 377A? And if he got charged, did the boy also get charged? I mean, they blew each other right?
So what happens now to the ‘promise’ that it wont be actively enforced?
And one more thing. I think the Act only came into effect in Apr or May 08. How then does a guy get charged under this Act when the event in question was in Sep 07? Can these laws be applied retroactively?
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This is the first case to come to court under the amended Infectious Diseases Act passed last month. |
By Elena Chong |
IN THE first case of its kind, an HIV-infected man was charged in court on Wednesday for engaging in oral sex with a 16-year-old boy. |
